With a non-zero number, the following operations are allowed: \(x \rightarrow \frac{1+x}{x}\), \(x \rightarrow \frac{1-x}{x}\). Is it true that from every non-zero rational number one can obtain each rational number with the help of a finite number of such operations?
Let \(f (x)\) be a polynomial about which it is known that the equation \(f (x) = x\) has no roots. Prove that then the equation \(f (f (x)) = x\) does not have any roots.
Author: A.K. Tolpygo
An irrational number \(\alpha\), where \(0 <\alpha <\frac 12\), is given. It defines a new number \(\alpha_1\) as the smaller of the two numbers \(2\alpha\) and \(1 - 2\alpha\). For this number, \(\alpha_2\) is determined similarly, and so on.
a) Prove that for some \(n\) the inequality \(\alpha_n <3/16\) holds.
b) Can it be that \(\alpha_n> 7/40\) for all positive integers \(n\)?